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Category: 1 ACC ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

1 ACC ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

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ACC311 final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 25

Analytical procedures are carried out for which one of the following purposes?

2 / 25

Test of controls comprise of testing of all EXCEPT

3 / 25

Stratification is a process of dividing a population into sub- populations which have

4 / 25

The auditor should select sample in such a way that:

5 / 25

Where the auditor relies more on the system of internal control the circumstance warrant:

6 / 25

Tolerable error and sample size have

7 / 25

Which of the following is needed to be verified at the time of verification of Account
Balances?

8 / 25

Which of the following is not needed to be verified at the time of verification of Equity?

9 / 25

Which of the following is the component of audit risk?

10 / 25

Advantages of Audit Sampling

11 / 25

Audit sampling conducted

12 / 25

DBMSes & Databa ses are same things.

13 / 25

Fixation of remuneration of auditors can be determined by the following authorities
EXCEPT: (Companies Ordinance 1984)

14 / 25

Internal control is primarily established within a company to do which of the following?

15 / 25

Which one of the following primary assertions is satisfied when an auditor ensures that
there are no unrecorded assets liabilities transactions or events or undisclosed items in the
client’s financial records?

16 / 25

Which of the following statements is true?

17 / 25

Which one of the following is considered as the formal opinion or disclaimer thereof
issued by an independent auditor as a result of audit or evaluation performed on a legal
entity?

18 / 25

Which one of the following is considered as the formal opinion or disclaimer thereof
issued by an independent auditor as a result of audit or evaluation performed on a legal
entity?

19 / 25

The purpose of engagement letter includes the following EXCEPT:

20 / 25

Which one of the following is the method of assessing the internal control system of an
entity?

21 / 25

Who is responsible for designing and preparing the financial statements?

22 / 25

Which one of the following persons are responsible for the preparation of Audit
engagement later?

23 / 25

Tab key is a

24 / 25

Which of the following is intangible?

25 / 25

The device used to store data is called

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ACC501 final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 25

Which of the following rate makes the Net Present Value (NPV) equal to zero?

2 / 25

Which of the following is (are) a non-cash item(s) ?

3 / 25

Who of the following make a broader use of accounting information?

4 / 25

In which type of market, used securities are traded?

5 / 25

Balance sheet items expressed as percentage of:

6 / 25

____________give a picture of a company's ability to generate cash flow and pay it financial obligations:

7 / 25

__________is concerned with the relationship between the long terms liabilities that a business has and its capital employed.

8 / 25

The current ratio is also known as:

9 / 25

Ratios look at the relationships between individual values and relate them to how a company:

10 / 25

The Cash flow statement records your_________ and expenditure at the end of the 'forecast' period.

11 / 25

_________are short-term, temporary investments that can be readily converted into cash.

12 / 25

Generally, changes made in cash, accounts receivable, depreciation, inventory and accounts payable are reflected in:

13 / 25

Changes in cash from financing are "cash in" when:

14 / 25

Investing activities include:

15 / 25

find the cash cycle inventory period is 38 days account payabel period is 50 days and average account receivable period is 30 days

16 / 25

Which of the following is known as the group of assets such as stocks and bonds held by an investor ?

17 / 25

In which type of projects, the unequal lives of the projects do affect the analysis ?

18 / 25

An investment will be _________ if the IRR doesn’t exceeds the required return and _________ otherwise.

19 / 25

A company has a two director and 1 shareholder which have 25 power of share the voter for director is

20 / 25

which of the following character is not a systematic risk

21 / 25

Standard deviations for Investment A and Investment B are 25% and 12% respectively. This indicates that :

22 / 25

allow a bank to substitute its creditworthiness for the customer, for a fee is called___________-

23 / 25

The time between sale of inventory and collection of receivable.

24 / 25

Analytical procedures are carried out for which one of the following purposes?

25 / 25

Test of controls comprise of testing of all EXCEPT

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Category: BIO ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

BIO ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

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BIO302 Final Term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Pyrimidine dimers are formed by...

2 / 20

In long patch repair, how many nucleotides are repaired...

3 / 20

There are three human MutS homologs

4 / 20

RNA polymerase performs essentially the same reaction in the cells from bacteria to human that is the synthesis of ........

5 / 20

Cells infected with phage ..........provide the ideal system to find the true template for protein synthesis

6 / 20

............are similar enough to the proper bases to get taken up by cells converted into nucleoside triphosphate and incorporated into DNA during replication.

7 / 20

Aflatoxins are produced by

8 / 20

What will happen to the DNA exposed to N-methylguanine

9 / 20

Hydrolytic deamination of cytosine is estimated to take place about

10 / 20

Which one of the following is not an ionizing radiation?

11 / 20

Separation of DNA is accomplished by __________.

12 / 20

An E.Coli chromosome is estimated to have about............super-coiled loops

13 / 20

DNA polymerase has ________ domains

14 / 20

On which media, cells are preferred to be grown?

15 / 20

Nucleosome fold to form the _______ fiber

16 / 20

How many amino acids are there in one compelete tern of DNA...

17 / 20

Nucleotide consists of ...... major molecules

18 / 20

Chromosome theory of inheritance by Thomas Hunt Morgan was presented in

19 / 20

Chromosomes are made up of.....

20 / 20

The hydrophilic backbones of alternating deoxyribose and phosphate groups are inside the double helix, facing the surrounding water?

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Category: BIF ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

BIF ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

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BIF 401 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Errors in peak matching also considered by……….

2 / 20

Experimental peptides also known as ……

3 / 20

The data base protein which have matching PSTs to invitro protein are known as
……

4 / 20

Fragmentation at consecutive sits lead to a mass difference equal to that of a single
…..

5 / 20

PST is sequence of peptidesproduced during…..

6 / 20

PST is abbreviation of…..

7 / 20

CID gives out “B” and ………….. ions

8 / 20

ECD gives out “C” and ……….. ions,

9 / 20

We can score each protein hit in away that the better match gets a ……

10 / 20

molecular weight increases by ……………. Of proton

11 / 20

Ionization process involve gaining and removal of ……….

12 / 20

Protien ionization is the ……… step in MS based proteomics.

13 / 20

Mass spectrometer use o measure the mass of protein and ………

14 / 20

Each fragmentation technique differ in their work on bases of ,

15 / 20

Tandem MS is typically called as,

16 / 20

Fragmentation techniques split the molecules of protein into……..

17 / 20

Tandem MS is used to ………… of protein fragments.

18 / 20

while scoring protein mass score is awarded on the base of ……….. b/w experimental
and theoretical mass.

19 / 20

in MS chamber mass/charge ratio can be measured by ……… of protein molecules

20 / 20

In mass electrometer chamber protein is deflected according to its ………

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Category: BT ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

BT ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

18
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BT301 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

DNA base composition change with

2 / 20

nucleotides of DNA are joined together through

3 / 20

How many Deoxy-ribonucleotides make the structural units of DNA.

4 / 20

In which disease which enzyme glucocerebrocidase is deficient?

5 / 20

Restriction enzymes are brought by

6 / 20

Nerves are covered by sheath called?

7 / 20

Arthropoitem first drug for?

8 / 20

IPO is abbreviation of ?

9 / 20

MC1R gene controls

10 / 20

DNA present in cell which cell organelle

11 / 20

Enzyme role in the reaction

12 / 20

Leeuwenhoek make how many lenses and microscopes respectively

13 / 20

400 BC food is stored by using

14 / 20

Risen of bread by yeast this process is called

15 / 20

4000 BC what is use for cheese flavor

16 / 20

Risen bread by using yeast is a process

17 / 20

Craig venter present which cells by beating govt concision on HGP

18 / 20

HUMIRA is an antibody

19 / 20

Enzyme Celluloses use for the cleaning of

20 / 20

Making of yogurt from milk is the example of biotechnology

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BT605 Final Term important mcqs 2023

1 / 15

Internal transport is except

2 / 15

treatment via gene therapy

3 / 15

Obstacles are except

4 / 15

which is not fire

5 / 15

Which is not a physical method to kill the bacteria (sterilized).

6 / 15

Factors affected development of Bioethics excepted

7 / 15

Animals used for working band roughting are called

8 / 15

whenever we want to develop a biosecurity plans we look at

9 / 15

digonastic labs

10 / 15

permission for food stuff is necessary for

11 / 15

chemicals fume hood is required microorganisms

12 / 15

Hbv vaccine can be given at the age on

13 / 15

hazardous chemicals follow the.. route of exposure

14 / 15

animals use for work band delighting called

15 / 15

children and old aged person have immunity

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BT101 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

When species are introduced by human vectors it is called

2 / 20

Intentional introduction is done for which cause?

3 / 20

Species are introduced in the new environment by -- ways

4 / 20

Non native species also known as

5 / 20

Species that are deliberately or accidently introduced into an ecosystem ?

6 / 20

Introduction of non native species is a major cause of--------

7 / 20

Those species that normally lives and thrives in a particular ecosystem called

8 / 20

In only a year, a single Asian cockroach and its offspring can add about how many new
cockroaches to the world.

9 / 20

One species of cockroach can survive being frozen for

10 / 20

horseshoe crab is the example of

11 / 20

A pattern of living of species is called

12 / 20

Which one is example of chemical components of environment

13 / 20

Which one is example of decomposers

14 / 20

Producers are

15 / 20

The term "ecosystem" was first used by

16 / 20

A catfish species in a pond usually shares the pond with other fish species, and with plants,
insects, ducks, and many other species that make up the

17 / 20

Prokaryotes can be divided into two domains

18 / 20

Biomes are often defined by which factors

19 / 20

A group of organisms of the same species that live in the same area at the same time called

20 / 20

The term ecology was invented by the Ernst Haeckel in

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BT301 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Structural instability of plasmids may arise by deletions or rearrangements of

2 / 20

YACs can clone ----------length of DNA fragment

3 / 20

YACs vectors replicate in ------like normal chromosome

4 / 20

How many steps in cloning with lambda replacement vectors

5 / 20

Charon 60 has ----- restriction site

6 / 20

Charon 60 is a replacement vector is this statement

7 / 20

Charon4A is a replacement vector is this statement

8 / 20

Wild type is not suitable as a cloning vector because it has ----restriction enzymes sites

9 / 20

How many stages in the use of Pbr322 in cloning?

10 / 20

p BR322 is cleaved at the ampicillin resistance element by…….

11 / 20

it is difficult to clone DNA segments longer than about…….bp when plasmid used as avector

12 / 20

pBR322 have high copy number and -----weight

13 / 20

tetracycline contain upto…. Restriction sites.

14 / 20

Plasmid Pbr322 contain……..selectable markers as compared to natural plasmid

15 / 20

pBR322 have -----target sites for different restriction enzymes

16 / 20

in pBR322 replicon element is

17 / 20

pBR322 contains the resistance gene against

18 / 20

pBR322 is an example of -----constructed cloning vehicle

19 / 20

During cloning of S.Aureus ,digested with EcoR1 how many fragments produced

20 / 20

pSC101 contain ------resistance

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Category: CS ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

CS ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

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CS001 most important mcqs for final term 2023

1 / 20

Tab key is a

2 / 20

Which of the following is intangible?

3 / 20

The device used to store data is called

4 / 20

Which of the following is primary storage?

5 / 20

_______repeats the last command or actions, if possible in excel.

6 / 20

The process of converting readable data into unreadable characters to prevent unauthorized use is called ____

7 / 20

A ____ is a Web site that uses encryption techniques to secure its data.

8 / 20

A(n) ____ line typically costs $1,000 or more per month.

9 / 20

The ____ standard defines how data transmits across telephone lines or other means.

10 / 20

Uniform Resource Locator (URL) is

11 / 20

The World Wide Web (WWW) is...

12 / 20

A user wishes to remove a spreadsheet from a workbook. Which is the correct sequence of events that will do this?

13 / 20

On an Excel sheet the active cell is indicated by ____.

14 / 20

Which type of chart shows the pattern or relationships between sets of data points?

15 / 20

What do you use to create a chart?

16 / 20

Which button on the standard toolbar gives you quick access to the Sum, Average, Count, Min, and Max functions?

17 / 20

What program do you use to create a spreadsheet?

18 / 20

Which is an absolute address?

19 / 20

A constant is another name for this type of data:

20 / 20

There are three types of data found in a spreadsheet.

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175
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CS201 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

To access the data members of structure _______ is used.

2 / 20

In if structure the block of statements is executed only,

3 / 20

width() is member function of _____________

4 / 20

Which of the following function do NOT initialize the chunk of memory to all zero?

5 / 20

_______ is used to trace the logic of the program and correct the logical errors.

6 / 20

Computer can understand only machine language code.

7 / 20

C is widely known as development language of _______ operating system.

8 / 20

Overloaded delete operator function takes the same parameter as an argument returned by new operator function.

9 / 20

The stream objects cin and cout are included in which header file?

10 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a preprocessor directive?

11 / 20

Which of the following function is used to increase the size of already allocated memory chunk?

12 / 20

When a value is referred by a normal variable then it is known as,

13 / 20

Operator overloading can be performed through__________________.

14 / 20

Reference Value Type Data The code is written to __________ the program.

15 / 20

A Pointer is a special variable that contain

16 / 20

Which of the following is the correct C++ syntax to allocate space dynamically for an array of 10 int?

17 / 20

How many bytes will the pointer intPtr of type int move in the following statement? intPtr += 3 ;

18 / 20

Class is a user defined___________.

19 / 20

Which one of the following is the declaration of overloaded pre-increment operator implemented as
member function?

20 / 20

All A template function must have at least ---------- generic data type

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80
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CS301 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

If you know the size of the data structure in advance, i.e., at compile time, which one of the following is
a good data structure to use.

2 / 20

Which one is a self-referential data type?

3 / 20

“+” is a operator.

4 / 20

Huffman encoding uses tree to develop codes of varying lengths for the letters used in the original message.

5 / 20

Each node in doubly link list has,

6 / 20

when we have declared the size of the array, it is not possible to increase or decrease it during the
of the program.

7 / 20

it will be efficient to place stack elements at the start of the list because insertion and removal take
time.

8 / 20

For compiler a postfix expression is easier to evaluate than infix expression?

9 / 20

A binary relation R over S is called an equivalence relation if it has following property(S)?

10 / 20

Binary Search is an algorithm of searching, used with the ______ data.

11 / 20

If one pointer of the node in a binary tree is NULL then it will be a/an _______ .

12 / 20

If there are N elements in an array then the number of maximum steps needed to find an element using Binary
Search is _______ .

13 / 20

A binary tree of N nodes has _______.

14 / 20

Which one of the following is NOT the property of equivalence relation:

15 / 20

If we have 1000 sets each containing a single different person. Which of the following relation will be true on
each set:

16 / 20

If there are N external nodes in a binary tree then what will be the no. of internal nodes in this binary tree?

17 / 20

For compiler a postfix expression is easier to evaluate than infix expression?

18 / 20

What will be postfix expression of the following infix expression?
Infix Expression : a+b*c-d

19 / 20

Which one of the following is known as "Last-In, First-Out" or LIFO Data Structure?

20 / 20

A solution is said to be efficient if it solves the problem within its resource constraints i.e. hardware and time.

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CS302 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Flip flops are also called____

2 / 20

A frequency counter_____

3 / 20

_____is used to simplify the circuit that determines the next state.

4 / 20

In a state diagram, the transition from a current state to the next state is determined by

5 / 20

____is one of the examples of synchronous inputs.

6 / 20

Addition of two octal numbers “36” and “71” results in____

7 / 20

Stack is an acronym for ___

8 / 20

The three fundamental gates are______

9 / 20

A Nibble consists of ____bits

10 / 20

The voltage gain of the Inverting Amplifier is given by the relation_____

11 / 20

Excess-8 code assigns to _____“-8”

12 / 20

In NOR gate based S-R latch if both S and R inputs are set to logic 0, the previous output state is
maintained.

13 / 20

In a sequential circuit the next state is determined by ____and____

14 / 20

A 8-bit serial in / parallel out shift register contains the value “8”____, clock signal(s) will be required
to shift the value completely out of the register.

15 / 20

In asynchronous transmission when the transmission line is idle,_____

16 / 20

A decade counter is_____

17 / 20

The ____ input overrides the ____ input

18 / 20

_____is said to occur when multiple internal variables change due to change in one input variable
Clock Skew

19 / 20

74HC163 has two enable input pins which are ___and____

20 / 20

The minimum time for which the input signal has to be maintained at the input of flip-flop is called
of the flip-flop.

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69
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CS304 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

In c++, compiler can generate which of the following operators ‘code,

2 / 20

Static casting is

3 / 20

We can have____ type of member functions in a class.

4 / 20

Public inheritance represents;

5 / 20

When we want to implement one class in terms of another class then we use,

6 / 20

Which of the following is Not casting operator in c++ standard?

7 / 20

To make a pure virtual, we need to give _after() of this function.

8 / 20

Target class of a ____function call is determined t run time.

9 / 20

Which of the following is not type of inheritance in c++?

10 / 20

Function overriding is done in context of,

11 / 20

Methodologies to the development of reusable software relate to_____

12 / 20

Friend’s functions of class are _ members of that class.

13 / 20

Compiler can automatically generates the following constructor/s for a class,

14 / 20

We can access public members of the class from outsides the class using____ operator with its
object pointer

15 / 20

By default assignment operator (=) performs,

16 / 20

In case of public inheritance, protected members of base class will be____ in derived class?

17 / 20

Then int member i of base class is accessible in class,

18 / 20

A template provides a convenient way to make a family of

19 / 20

The default inheritance mode is,

20 / 20

Function func1of class1 is _ in class2.

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45
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CS401 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 22

Threads can have function calls, parameters and _ variables.

2 / 22

Value of AH in the write Graphics pixel service is

3 / 22

in the instruction MOV AX, 5 the number of operands are

4 / 22

Motorola 68K processors have ....................... 23bit general purpose registers.

5 / 22

In 9pin DB 9, Signal ground is assigned on pin number

6 / 22

In 9pin DB 9, which pin number is assigned to CD (Carrier Detect)?

7 / 22

BIOS sees the disks as  Logical storage  Raw storage (Page 155)

8 / 22

INT 21 service 01H is used to read character from standard input with echo. It returns the
result in

9 / 22

For the execution of the instruction “DIV BL”, the implied dividend will be stored in

10 / 22

RETF will pop the segment address in the

11 / 22

In the “mov ax, 5” 5 is the____ operand.

12 / 22

To reserve 8-bits in memory _ directive is used.

13 / 22

In 68K processors there is a ......................... program counter (PC) that holds the address of
currently executing

14 / 22

The physical address of IDT (Interrupt Descriptor Table) is stored in____

15 / 22

Which of the following pins of a parallel port connector are grounded?

16 / 22

Which of the following IRQs is used for Floppy disk drive?

17 / 22

Which of the following IRQs is derived by a key board?

18 / 22

Which of the following gives the more logical view of the storage medium

19 / 22

The thread registration code initializes the PCB and adds it to the linked list so that the___ will give it a turn

20 / 22

Creation of threads can be

21 / 22

In graphics mode a location in video memory corresponds to a____ on the screen.

22 / 22

Suppose AL contains 5 decimals then after two left shifts produces the value as

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CS402 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

If L1 and L2 are expressed by regular languages then L1 + L2 is _____also a Language.

2 / 20

Which of the following is the first phase of compiler on the basis
of functionality?

3 / 20

The language of Palindromes defined over an alphabet set {a, b}
can be recognized by_____

4 / 20

Chomsky normal form (CYK) algorithm was proposed by_____

5 / 20

For every Context Free Grammar (CFG), we can make the
corresponding_____

6 / 20

We cannot write regular expressions for all____

7 / 20

Alphabet Σ = {a, bc, cc} has number of letters

8 / 20

The first rule of converting the given “CFG in CNF”, is_____

9 / 20

The process of finding the derivation of the word generated by
particular grammar is called______

10 / 20

where the input string is placed before it is run, is called _

11 / 20

Which of the following pairs of regular expressions are
equivalent?

12 / 20

Which of the following is a regular language?

13 / 20

In CFG, the symbols that can’t be replaced by anything are
called ___

14 / 20

the FA has N states, then test the words of length less than N. If no word is accepted by this FA, then it will _____word/words.

15 / 20

Pumping lemma is generally used to prove that:

16 / 20

If L is a regular language then, Lc is also a ___ language.

17 / 20

Even-palindrome is a _ language.

18 / 20

According to 1st part of the Kleene‟s theorem, If a language can be
accepted by an FA then it can be accepted by a ___ as well.

19 / 20

“One language can have _ TG‟s”.

20 / 20

If Σ = {aa, bb} , then Σ* will not contain

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21
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CS507 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

“M-Commerce” stands for Mobile Commerce.

2 / 20

RAID models based on producing deliverables frequently/repetitively

3 / 20

To accept the potential risk and continue operating the IT system or to implement controls to lower the risk to an acceptable level is called as -----------

4 / 20

____________ are the symbols indicates the flow of the procedure being explained.

5 / 20

__________ is an association among entities. There has to be a relationship between two entities

6 / 20

Which of the following is the primary method for keeping a computer secure from intruders?

7 / 20

In assessing risks for an IT system, _______________ is the first step.

8 / 20

An event-oriented log usually contain records describing system events, application
events, or user events.

9 / 20

Characteristics of object are called ________

10 / 20

Testing is easy for the software that is developed using OOAD due to use of____

11 / 20

_________ means information hiding.

12 / 20

Null value may or may not be called zero value.

13 / 20

Wireless computing devices are not subject to viruses.

14 / 20

Automated data are less susceptible to destruction and misuse than paper data.

15 / 20

----------is a type of computer software that facilitates group decision- making within an organization

16 / 20

A ________ is an agreed-upon set of conventions that defines the rules of communication.

17 / 20

Which of the following  functions provide such data as sales prospect and contact information, product information, product configurations and sales quotes?

18 / 20

Business is a system where management decisions are influenced by or have an influence on suppliers, customers, society as a whole.

19 / 20

Past court decisions have stated that privacy must be balanced against the needs of society.

20 / 20

A hierarchical organization is structured in a way such that every entity in the organization, except one, is subordinate to a single other entity.

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32
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CS508 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

C# code when compiled is converted into ________ code.

2 / 20

How many string operators are in PHP?

3 / 20

Java has a String class which is not exactly an array of

4 / 20

The concept of C# jagged array is similar in function to _________

5 / 20

The concept of package in Java is similar to _________

6 / 20

In Java we can make pointer of_________.

7 / 20

For narrowing conversion which type conversion is appropriate?

8 / 20

PHP syntax looks like ___________

9 / 20

In______ Boolean expression is convertible into integer type.

10 / 20

In C# Managed code is executed under the control of

11 / 20

_______exception inherits from exception class and _________ exception is anywhere in the program.

12 / 20

Which chaining type is used by Prolog?

13 / 20

How many modes for the source code are in C#?

14 / 20

In _________ the relationship between a get and set method is inherited, while in _________ it has to be maintained.

15 / 20

________ compile initially to an intermediate. Which can be run by interpretation or just in time compilation or an appropriate virtual machine?

16 / 20

________ compile into machine independent language, independent code which run in a
managed execution environment.

17 / 20

C# and C++ have ________ size.

18 / 20

In ________ every class in Java is part is overloaded

19 / 20

Variable of ________ is not an object of java

20 / 20

One difference LISP and PROLOG is

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24
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CS604 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

In ................. page replacement algorithm oldest frame is replaced with
another.

2 / 20

In ......... technology, memory is divided into several fixed-size parties.

3 / 20

If validation bit 0, it indicates a/an ............. state of segment.

4 / 20

In ............... allocation scheme number of frames allocated to a process is
proportional to its size.

5 / 20

.............. enables process to communicate with each other.

6 / 20

In ................ , each file is a linked lists blocks may be scattered anywhere on
the disk.

7 / 20

The problem of Deadlock can be solved by ................ method(s).

8 / 20

................ Is the variation of frok system call in several Unix operating
system used for virtual memory.

9 / 20

Named pipes give ................ flow of data by default.

10 / 20

In .................. frame allocation scheme free frames are equally divided
among processes.

11 / 20

.............. is single program that produces an object file.

12 / 20

A new process is called by the ................. system call

13 / 20

............... wastes CPU cycles and hence a problem in real multiprogramming
system.

14 / 20

In ......... system, the user space contain one process at a time because only
one process is executing at given time

15 / 20

points to the smallest memory address of a process.

16 / 20

Page replacement algorithm suffers from Belay’s anomaly.

17 / 20

1 KB is equivalent to.....

18 / 20

The set of all Logical address generated by a program from ................ of the
process.

19 / 20

When the address used in the program gets converted to an actual physical
RAM address is called........

20 / 20

........................ is the separation of user logical memory from physical
memory.

Your score is

The average score is 55%

0%

11
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CS605 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 19

An____ is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information maintained within the boundary of the application

2 / 19

The degree of rigor in determining the set of tasks can be categorized as casual , quick restriction, strict and_____

3 / 19

A requirement related detected in any (design, source code testing) will be called____

4 / 19

In order to use the PERT and CPM, which one of the following is not required?

5 / 19

____are sometimes also knowns as walkthroughs or inspects

6 / 19

It is noted that a/an _ _ review can be worse than no review at all.

7 / 19

Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a_____ technique for assessing the progess of a project.

8 / 19

A model where Some errors are passed through to the next stem undebated such errors are said to have been .

9 / 19

_ a statistical technique is used to develop an overall indication of improvement in software quality.

10 / 19

The basis principle for a review is that the focus should be on the
_ ..

11 / 19

_____ states that 80% of the defects can be traced to 20% of its causes.

12 / 19

____ involves rework, repair, and failure mode analysis of the product.

13 / 19

If an error related to requirements is identified in testing phase, error will be considered an error of _ _ phase.

14 / 19

The Review participants SHOULD NOT be focused on .

15 / 19

It is noted that a/an _ _ review can be worse then no review at all

16 / 19

It is noted that a/an _ _ review can be worse then no review at all

17 / 19

The two objectives of a are to identify problem areas within the work product and a checklist of action items.

18 / 19

Schedule Performance Index SPI) is equal to

19 / 19

___ is defined as the probability of failure free operation of a
computer program in a specified environment for a specified time.

Your score is

The average score is 55%

0%

9
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CS606 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

The parser generator yacc can handle LL(1) grammars.

2 / 20

parser transforms a stream of tokens into an _____

3 / 20

S  a S | Sa | c

This grammar is ambiguous.

4 / 20

Graph coloring is a register allocation heuristic that usually finds he minimal number of registers needed for aprocedure.

5 / 20

Graph coloring is a register allocation technique that operates at individual basic blocks.

6 / 20

_____is a register allocation technique that always finds the minimal number of registers needed for a procedure.

7 / 20

Consider the Following
S → AB

8 / 20

S  A | xb
A  aAb | x
This grammar contains a conflict.

9 / 20

The following grammar contains a conflict. S → A | xb

10 / 20

A lexical analyzer generated by lex is essentially a PDA (Push Down Automaton).

11 / 20

A lexical analyzer generated by____ is essentially a FSA.

12 / 20

_____is elaborated to produce bindings.

13 / 20

In parser, the two LL stand for ._____

14 / 20

_____parsers never shifts into an error state.

15 / 20

In LL(1) parsing algorithm,____ contains a sequence of grammar symbols.

16 / 20

_____Phase supports macro substitution and conditional compilation.

17 / 20

____is a regular expression for the set of all strings over the alphabet {a} that has an even number of a’s.

18 / 20

The regular expression denotes, the set of all strings of a’s and b’s of length two

19 / 20

Parsers take____ as input from lexical analyzer.

20 / 20

____convert the relocatable machine code into absolute machine code by linking library and relocatable object files.

Your score is

The average score is 56%

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14
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CS607 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Many machine learning systems are classifiers.

2 / 20

Hypothesis space uses the of the attributes.

3 / 20

Aggregation only occurs once for each output variable, just after the fifth and final step, defuzzification.

4 / 20

____is the process by which the fuzzy sets that represent the outputs of each
rule are combined into a single fuzzy set.

5 / 20

.A classical set is a container, which wholly includes or wholly excludes any given element.

6 / 20

Inference networks encode the knowledge of rules and_____

7 / 20

Select the category that does NOT belong to Elicitation methods.

8 / 20

____is the bottleneck in the construction of expert system.

9 / 20

In Linear Model, a linear sequence of steps is applied repeatedly in an iterative fashion to develop the Expert System.

10 / 20

In CLIPS, the command to load file is:

11 / 20

Backward chaining is an inference strategy that works backward from a to a_____

12 / 20

An expert system may take ___main roles, relative to the human expert.

13 / 20

A statement in conjunctive normal form (CNF) consists of_____

14 / 20

______reasoning is used when the facts of the case are likely to change after
some time

15 / 20

A square is used to represent a Fuzzy set.

16 / 20

Fuzzy logic is a subset of conventional (Boolean) logic.

17 / 20

Any given learning problem is primarily composed of things

18 / 20

Which is/are clustering algorithm(s)

19 / 20

Genetic algorithms have been employed in finding the optimal initial weights of neural networks.

20 / 20

Soft-computing is naturally applied in machine learning applications

Your score is

The average score is 73%

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15
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CS609 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

The simplest form of synchronization can be achieved through___ construct.

2 / 20

One process can finish another process using the function _______

3 / 20

There are ------ APIs to manage fiber.

4 / 20

Parent process usually creates a ______ handle if parent and child process require ____
access rights.

5 / 20

The _____ function is used to obtain the process handle using the process ID.

6 / 20

A fiber can obtain its identity by calling _______function.

7 / 20

Inherited handles are _____ copies that a parent and child might be accessing.

8 / 20

A thread can enable fiber operation by calling _____function.

9 / 20

Control of a running fiber can be given to another fiber by using --------- function.

10 / 20

Ip ApplicationName handle’s value _____ be NULL.

11 / 20

In windows, there are ______ ways to get command line parameter for a process.

12 / 20

Closing the child process only closes the access of the _______.

13 / 20

Closing the child process handle ______ the process.

14 / 20

FILETIME parameter of GetThreadTime() function is a ____ bit value.

15 / 20

If a system is ______ then windows scheduler can run process threads on separate
processors.

16 / 20

If the system is _____ time is multiplexed among multiple processes in an interleaved manner.

17 / 20

Process identify can be obtained from the _______ structure.

18 / 20

In job management shell the shell uses ____ specific file keeping track of process ID and other related information

19 / 20

Simple job management shell will allow _____ commands to run.

20 / 20

The GetCommandLine() function returns the command line as a single______

Your score is

The average score is 66%

0%

39
Created on By Dilawar

CS610 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Address Resolution Protocol is mostly used to bind a 32-bit IP address to a ____Ethernet address.

2 / 20

The protocol address of the next hop must be____ to an equivalent hardware address before a packet can be sent.

3 / 20

______of TCP/IP protocol suit defines the basic characteristics of
network hardware.

4 / 20

Dotted decimal represents each octet in___ and uses a dot to separate octets.

5 / 20

Inside a computer, each address mask is stored as a____ bit value.

6 / 20

A separate _ table is used for each physical network.

7 / 20

Internet protocol (IP) address version 4 is comprised of ------- bits.

8 / 20

In the IP address ___ identifies an individual computer on the network.

9 / 20

Dotted decimal notation is a syntactic form the IP software uses to express____ binary values when interacting with humans.

10 / 20

____protocols of TCP/IP layering model specify how to organize data into frame and how a computer transmits frames over a network.

11 / 20

Mapping between a protocol address and a hardware address is called_____

12 / 20

If the IP address ____identifies the Physical Network to which the computer is attached.

13 / 20

Dotted Decimal represented each octet in___ and uses a dot to separate octets.

14 / 20

____ of TCP/IP protocol suit defines the basic characteristics of network hardware

15 / 20

____ are two standard implementations to improve computational efficiency.

16 / 20

____ protocols of TCP/IP layering model specify how to organize data an how a computer translate frames over a network.

17 / 20

____ protocols of TCP/IP layering model specify how to ensure reliable transfer.

18 / 20

TCP/IP define the term_ to refer any computer system that connects to a network and runs applications for user.

19 / 20

The protocol address of the next hop must be to an equivalent hardware address before a packets can be sent.

20 / 20

Inside a computer, each address mask is stored as a_ bit value.

Your score is

The average score is 61%

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12
Created on By Dilawar

CS614 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Data dependencies between different phases of computation introduce synchronization requirements that force ___execution.

2 / 20

An optimized structure which is built primarily for retrieval, with update being only a secondary consideration is

3 / 20

____if fits into memory, costs only one disk I/O access to locate a record by given key.

4 / 20

_____says that as far as company goals are concerned, the entire company pursues in the
same direction

5 / 20

A dense index, if fits into memory, costs only___ disk I/O access to locate a record by given key.

6 / 20

.Implementation of a data warehouse requires ____activities

7 / 20

.In___ phase of Kimballs approach, we identify the components needed now and in future.

8 / 20

Which of the following activity executes parallel with all other activities in Kimball’s DWH development approach?

9 / 20

Which of the following is the most ignored step during data warehouse development

10 / 20

Which of the following is NOT one of the methodologies for Data Warehouse project development?

11 / 20

In ____phase of a fundamental data warehouse life cycle model, a working model of data warehouse is deployed for a selective set of users

12 / 20

A typical cycle of implementing the change in DWH comprises of the sequence:

13 / 20

Goal driven approach of data warehouse development was result of____ work.

14 / 20

A top down implementation approach is useful when

15 / 20

In lifecycle data track, we begin with translating the requirements into dimensional model, which then transforms into_____

16 / 20

Horizontally wide data means:

17 / 20

As per Bill Inmon, a data warehouse, in contrast with classical applications is:

18 / 20

Waterfall is a/an____ model

19 / 20

Spiral model is______

20 / 20

Bill Inmon argues that requirements are well understood only after

Your score is

The average score is 79%

0%

9
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CS615 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

All activities lying on critical path have slack time equal to ...

2 / 20

The primary input to create the software is/are. .____

3 / 20

The user-representative gives the sign-off after_____

4 / 20

The amount of training time needed for a new user is called_____

5 / 20

_____is/are common component/s of PERT and CPM.

6 / 20

____is /are basic network-scheduling techniques

7 / 20

Unstructured and hurried software development is a______

8 / 20

Dividing a software project into phases helps you in managing the_____involved in the software project.

9 / 20

_____is NOT a guideline for creating a software project schedule.

10 / 20

Using the intermediate COCOMO technique effort is calculated in____

11 / 20

To calculate the estimated effort using the intermediate COCOMO technique, you use the formula:

12 / 20

Specify any company or industry-specific standards that are relevant to performing the work is called____

13 / 20

Traditional structures of business organization are of ___types

14 / 20

People are managed through an organizational structure. This hierarchical structure is based on the cornerstones of management

15 / 20

The training plan NOT contain the activity_____

16 / 20

_____associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace.

17 / 20

Auditing is activity of________

18 / 20

Resource allocation task is performed in phase

19 / 20

Span of control in project management is the range of employees who to report to a

20 / 20

When a project is being performed under contract, the product description is provided by which of the following?

Your score is

The average score is 61%

0%

0
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CS703 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

In virtual file system _____ object represents a specific directory entry.

2 / 20

_________ timers may be dynamically created and destroyed.

3 / 20

In demand paging pages are only brought into _____when they only referenced only the code data that is needed by process needs to be loaded.

4 / 20

_______ is placed on the number of currently active dynamic timers.

5 / 20

The purpose of a _______ system is to prevent accidental or intentional misuse of a system.

6 / 20

Using Fast File system (FFS) multiple file systems with different _______ sizes can co- reside.

7 / 20

Device controller converts _______ bit stream to block of bytes.

8 / 20

_______ FS contains an index to a particular field of each record in a file

9 / 20

Module Management Supports loading modules into memory and letting them talk to the rest of the _______.

10 / 20

_______ is when the system spends most of its time servicing page faults, little time doing useful work.

11 / 20

In loadable kernel module sections of kernel code can be compiled loaded, and unloaded independently of the rest of the _______.

12 / 20

Each timer contains a _______ that indicates how far in the future the timer should expire.

13 / 20

Interrupt handler is more _______ then exception.

14 / 20

Device independent I/O software usually interfaces to device drivers through a standard
_______

15 / 20

In direct I/O device controller’s register and internal memory is accessible via special _______ in the assembly language instruction.

16 / 20

Hardware layer of the I/O system perform _______ operation.

17 / 20

Fast file system used a minimum of _______ size disk block.

18 / 20

We can use _______ memory to allow processes to data using direct memory reference.

19 / 20

The working set of process is used to model the dynamic _______ of its memory usage.

20 / 20

In page table entries the _______ bits control which operations are allowed.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

0%

Category: ECO ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

ECO ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

242
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ECO401 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

If income elasticity is negative, the good is:

2 / 20

Welfare economics is the branch of economics which deals with:

3 / 20

An individual with a constant marginal utility of income will be:

4 / 20

Law of diminishing marginal utility indicates that the slope of the marginal
utility curve is:

5 / 20

Marginal profit is equal to:

6 / 20

In a period of boom, credit creation is:

7 / 20

Public investment expenditure for highways, schools, and national defense is included in which component of GDP?

8 / 20

The situation when a country imports more than it exports is known as:

9 / 20

Which of the following is TRUE?

10 / 20

In the long run, the output level is determined by:

11 / 20

The relationship between hours provided by labor and wage rate is:

12 / 20

Demand is elastic when the elasticity of demand is:

13 / 20

In the Keynesian cross model, the aggregate expenditure line has a slope
of:

14 / 20

In Keynesian economics, if aggregate expenditures are less than aggregate
output then:

15 / 20

According to classical economics, the economy will always tend toward
full employment due to:

16 / 20

Classical economics was replaced as the dominant theory of macroeconomic analysis by:

17 / 20

The price elasticity of demand for any good must be less than or equal to
zero unless:

18 / 20

The market structure in which strategic considerations are most important
is:

19 / 20

A market with few entry barriers and with many firms that sell differentiated
products is:

20 / 20

The numerical measurement of a consumer’s preference is called:

Your score is

The average score is 57%

0%

53
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ECO402 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Our economy is characterized by:

2 / 20

If Px = Py, then when the consumer maximizes utility:

3 / 20

The concept of a risk premium applies to a person that is:

4 / 20

The price elasticity of demand for a demand curve that has a zero slope is:

5 / 20

The function which shows combinations of inputs that yield the same output is called a(n):

6 / 20

Which of the following is true regarding income along a price consumption curve?

7 / 20

The law of diminishing returns applies to:

8 / 20

A production function assumes a given:

9 / 20

The total cost (TC) of producing computer software diskettes (Q) is given as:
TC = 200 + 5Q. What is the variable cost?

10 / 20

The law of diminishing returns refers to diminishing:

11 / 20

When a product transformation curve is bowed outward, there are
_______________ in production.

12 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a generally accepted measure of the riskiness
of an investment?

13 / 20

Economies of scope refer to:

14 / 20

When the average product is decreasing, marginal product:

15 / 20

Fixed costs are fixed with respect to changes in:

16 / 20

Cost-output elasticity can be written and calculated as:

17 / 20

The difference between the economic and accounting costs of a firm are:

18 / 20

Assume that beer is an inferior good. If the price of beer falls, then the substitution effect results in the person buying ______ of the good and the income effect results in the person buying ______ of the good.

19 / 20

A production function assumes a given:

20 / 20

Incremental cost is the same concept as ______________ cost.

Your score is

The average score is 62%

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37
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ECO403 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

The extra output that a firm can produce using an additional unit of labor is known as:

2 / 20

The rate at which the consumer is willing to substitute second period consumption for the first
period consumption is known as:

3 / 20

Let s denote the rate of job separation and f the rate of job finding. If the labor market is in a steady state, the natural rate of unemployment is equal to:

4 / 20

The narrowest definition of money supply is:

5 / 20

Inflation resulting from supply shocks is known as:

6 / 20

An item that is intrinsically worthless is:

7 / 20

The standard of living is often measured by which of the following?

8 / 20

Which of the following is NOT the short run impact of an increase in money supply?

9 / 20

Currency held by the public is included in:

10 / 20

The deposits that banks have received but have not lent out are called banks
investments.

11 / 20

As income rises, average propensity to consume (APC) falls.

12 / 20

Structural unemployment is the unemployment resulting from real wage rigidity and job
rationing.

13 / 20

Intermediate goods are counted in the calculation of GDP.

14 / 20

The aggregate supply curve in the short run is different from the aggregate supply
curve in the long run due to:

15 / 20

A rightward shift in the aggregate demand curve can be caused by:

16 / 20

The relationship between consumer spending and income is known as the:

17 / 20

Which of the following would not be included in M2?

18 / 20

Keeping in mind the functions of money, which one of the following is money?

19 / 20

Gross domestic product measured in terms of the prices of a fixed, or base, year is:

20 / 20

In the circular flow diagram, firms _____________ inputs and households ____________ products.

Your score is

The average score is 65%

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Category: EDU ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: ENG ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

156
Created on By Dilawar

ENG001 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 19

Which one of the following options is NOT a search engine?

2 / 19

Choose the option that best defines the 'Courteous':

3 / 19

His hair was unkempt.

4 / 19

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

5 / 19

Camels store water ___________ of fat in their humps.

6 / 19

She .........trying to pass her driving test but fails every time.

7 / 19

My parents have been married ______ forty-nine years.

8 / 19

Grandpa stayed up ______ two in the morning.

9 / 19

My best friend, John, is named ______ his great-grandfather.

10 / 19

The police caught the thief _____ the corner of Cascade and Plum Streets.

11 / 19

Have you read the article _____ Time magazine ____ Google?

12 / 19

Brazil is _____ England.

13 / 19

A transitional expression between independent clauses is preceded with a -------------
--and followed by a comma.

14 / 19

Which one of the following punctuation marks is used to introduce a series?

15 / 19

What a rainy day!

16 / 19

How many people are going to school?

17 / 19

Which type of writing does engage its readers through original insight and precise
language?

18 / 19

Which type of paragraph is used to describe spaces?

19 / 19

A message’s success depends upon the fulfillment of the following points:

Your score is

The average score is 75%

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157
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ENG201 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

While delivering an oral presentation to large groups, a person should use ----------------- style.

2 / 20

AIDS stands for:

3 / 20

How many elements are found in conventional superstructure for instructions?

4 / 20

Which of the following significantly improves the interest of a presentation?

5 / 20

Which of the following suggests the following statement? "First group the ideas and then put them
in sequence."

6 / 20

If your message is specific, definite and vivid; which of the following principle
has been applied?

7 / 20

Claim letter is also called:

8 / 20

What is the last thing you need to do before you get ready to distribute your document?

9 / 20

Which method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?

10 / 20

Which of the following proposal section is related to researcher’s investigation?

11 / 20

Which one of the following questions that produce specific information, save time, requires less effort to answer, and eliminate bias and prejudice in answer?

12 / 20

Which of the following is associated with scholarly writing?

13 / 20

Which of the following is the first thing you must consider while writing a resume?

14 / 20

Which of the following is achieved through a balance between precise language and familiar
language?

15 / 20

Which of the following is the process of drafting your message?

16 / 20

Which of the following should be avoided while writing business message?

17 / 20

Choose the sentence with the correct punctuation.

18 / 20

Choose the correct sentence.

19 / 20

Which of the followings are real but unnamed readers?

20 / 20

Which of the following is generally organized by direct approach and receives a
favorable reaction?

Your score is

The average score is 64%

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67
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ENG301 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 5

--------------- is a group of people who are appointed to solve a specific problem.

2 / 5

Written summary of a business meeting is called:

3 / 5

It is an analysis of business done during the whole month

4 / 5

Supporters of--------------- theory believe that communication is not linear, but circular
process.

5 / 5

In letter writing, the format in which all essential parts are started from the left hand
margin along with open punctuation is known as:

Your score is

The average score is 67%

0%

Category: FIN ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: GEN ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: GSC ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: HRM ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: ISL ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

34
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ISL201 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Which of the following surah describes the concept of Tauheed comprehensively

2 / 20

Specific act that nourish ALLAH’S love

3 / 20

Which word is used in surah Al-Lail as the antonym of Taqwa?

4 / 20

Soul of Fast (roza) is to avoid from

5 / 20

The Holy Prophet Muhamamd (PBUH) was born in __________

6 / 20

Kuniyyat (family name) of our beloved prophet is

7 / 20

Message of all Prophets of Allah is based upon __________ basic beliefs.

8 / 20

How many aspects of Truthfulness?

9 / 20

Which angel was charged with bringing the Quranic revelations to the prophet
Muhammad (PBUH)?

10 / 20

The first revelation was revealed in the cave of

11 / 20

How many years Holy prophet Muhammad (PBUH) lived in Makkah?

12 / 20

How many leaders of Makkah were imprisoned in battle of Badar?

13 / 20

Holy prophet Muhammad (PBUH) brought about Moral Revolution through his

14 / 20

In which surah Allah mentioned about the pledge which has been taken right before the
treatyn of Hudaybiyyah?

15 / 20

Ikhlas in worship (ibadah) means to do worship

16 / 20

Taqwa is the name of specific condition of

17 / 20

“Obey me as long as I obey Allah and his Prophet if ever I should disobey them, then
you need no longer to obey me” it was saying of_________

18 / 20

Who run between the mountains in search of water?

19 / 20

Dishonesty is one of the major signs of

20 / 20

Honesty plays a pivotal roll in

Your score is

The average score is 64%

0%

Category: MCD ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: MCM ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: MGMT ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

Category: MGT ALL SUBJ FINAL MCQS

43
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MGT111 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Which of the following is the executive head of government:

2 / 20

According to Civil Servant Act 1973 what does "Civil" mean?

3 / 20

_____ seats are reserved for women in National Assembly of
Pakistan.

4 / 20

Which of the following is the main focus of Private Sector
Administration?

5 / 20

Which of the following is a natural outcome of the close
interaction of people?

6 / 20

Which of the following term best defined the 'Government of India
Act 1858'?

7 / 20

According to 1973 Constitution of Pakistan, parliament comprises
of:

8 / 20

In which of the following year 'First Five Year Plan' of the
Government of Pakistn was developed?

9 / 20

Finanace Division of Pakistan performs which of the following
functions?

10 / 20

Who is/are the main contributor/s of System School of Thought?
Select correct option:

11 / 20

Which of the following is the main focus of Private Sector
Administration?

12 / 20

In which of the following year "Pakistan Customs and Excise
services" has established?

13 / 20

At federal level, the apex organization is ministry. At provincial
level apex organization is called:

14 / 20

CSP stands for?

15 / 20

Which of the following division has function to negotiate with the
foreign governments and organizations for economic assistance?

16 / 20

Before 1957, Pakistan Taxation Service recruited the people on
which of the following basis?

17 / 20

To specify who reports to whom is termed as:

18 / 20

What was the era of working of Chester I. Barnard in Telephone
Company as president?

19 / 20

of the Controller General of Pakistan is attached department of ______ . Select correct option:

20 / 20

PAAS stands for?

Your score is

The average score is 59%

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246
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MGT211 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Cooperative society is set up to protect economically the -------- sections of the society.

2 / 20

Minimum members of public limited company should be

3 / 20

Commerce can be----------------

4 / 20

------------- are responsible for the development. pricing, promotion and distribution of goods and
services

5 / 20

Skills used in understanding and getting along with people is ----------

6 / 20

---------- skills are necessary to compete in a global environment.

7 / 20

Company must hold an annual general meeting of its shareholders -------in a year.

8 / 20

A notice of annual general meeting should be sent to the shareholders at least-------- days before the
date of meeting.

9 / 20

A public company must have --------- basic legal document.

10 / 20

In Private limited company minimum members can be 2 and maximum members should not
exceed-------

11 / 20

----------- are the objectives that a business hopes and plan to achieve

12 / 20

Due to the absence of ----------- the performance of cooperative society is very poor.

13 / 20

Cooperative society is set up to protect economically the -------- sections of the society.

14 / 20

Minimum members of public limited company should be

15 / 20

------------ separates the organization from its environment.

16 / 20

A good business person must have the knowledge about ---------- skills.

17 / 20

Commerce can be----------------

18 / 20

------------- is the second component of business.

19 / 20

--------is connected with the production and preparation of goods and services.

20 / 20

-------------- is the lifeblood of every business.

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MGT301 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Pictures and specification of product are added in which of the following part of the marketing plan?

2 / 20

Which of the following is also called an Export market?

3 / 20

Which of the following is usually the target of a market challenger?

4 / 20

Which of the following is known as a set of marketing tools used by the firms to pursue its marketing objectives in the
target market?

5 / 20

Insurance service would BEST be described as which kind of a product?

6 / 20

Which of the following is the task of selecting an overall company strategy for long-run survival and growth?

7 / 20

Core competency guides a firm recombining its abilities in response to demands from the:

8 / 20

Sales decline in the decline stage of the PLC because of technological advances, increased competition, and _____.

9 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a part of consumer adoption process?

10 / 20

Financial summary of a marketing plan includes all EXCEPT:

11 / 20

The consumer products and services with unique characteristics or brand identification for which a significant group of
buyers is willing to make a special purchase effort are called:

12 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a technique of measuring customer satisfaction and monitoring customer’s complaint?

13 / 20

Which of the following firms’ emphasis on product’s benefits to the customers rather than on product attributes?

14 / 20

A firm is producing standardized products and enjoying the economies of scale by producing more. The firm is following
which of the following strategy?

15 / 20

A company designs the product with little or no input from customers, the company is practicing which of the following
concept?

16 / 20

Which of the following is an advantage that enables business to survive against its competition over a long period of
time?

17 / 20

Buying and selling of mass consumer goods and services comes under which of the following markets?

18 / 20

Which of the following BEST describes the consumer’s preference for products that are widely available to them?

19 / 20

Critical path analysis is useful at which stage of the product development Process?
Select correct option:

20 / 20

Which of the following is an example of ancillary service?

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MGT401 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Which of the following IAS covers the retrospective restatements of prior
period errors?

2 / 20

Which of the following is considered as Non-cash item?

3 / 20

Which of the following represents that total par value of shares which is
taken up by the public out of total issued capital?

4 / 20

Insurance paid in advance would be treated in the Balance sheet as:

5 / 20

Which of the following is a fall in the value of an asset so that its recoverable
amount is now less than its carrying value in the balance sheet?

6 / 20

Which of the following is an artificial person recognized by law?

7 / 20

Which one the following risk will arise when financial instruments fluctuate
due to changes in foreign exchange rates?

8 / 20

.Which of the following IAS deals with Subsidiary Companies?

9 / 20

According to the Prudence concept, Stock should be included in Balance
Sheet at:

10 / 20

.Which of the following section of the Companies ordinance 1984 refers to the
share issued at discount?

11 / 20

Which of the following represents that total par value of shares which is
taken up by the public out of total issued capital?

12 / 20

A Private limited company can be formed at least by:

13 / 20

Which of the following represents the claims of the owners against the
assets of the business?

14 / 20

Which of the following clause of Companies Ordinance 1984 told that the
Non-current liabilities shall be classified under appropriate subheads?

15 / 20

What is the maximum number of shareholders allowed for a Public Limited
Company?

16 / 20

Which of the following is (are) related with the IAS 23?

17 / 20

Revaluation of asset is conducted by:

18 / 20

Which of the following represents that the shares are issued at a price below
the face value?

19 / 20

Which of the following clause of Companies Ordinance 1984 told that the
long term loans shall be classified as secured and unsecured?

20 / 20

Insurance paid in advance would be treated in the Balance sheet as:

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MGT402 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Examples of industries that would use process costing include all of the
following EXCEPT:

2 / 20

Which of the following is sales force payroll incentive?

3 / 20

All of the following compose cost of goods sold EXCEPT:

4 / 20

Usually the first step in the production of the master budget is the:

5 / 20

Production budget is an example of which of the following budget?

6 / 20

The net profit or loss for a particular period of time is reported on which of the
following?

7 / 20

Period costs are:

8 / 20

When By-product is to be recycled, which one of the following will be used for costing?

9 / 20

If an item of overhead expenditure is charged specifically to a single department this
would be an example of:

10 / 20

A cost that has been incurred but cannot be changed by present or future decisions is
called:

11 / 20

In a make or buy situation with no limiting factors, which of the following would be the
relevant costs for the decision?

12 / 20

Which of the following is NOT example of a cash outflow?

13 / 20

Which of the following costs do NOT change when the activity base fluctuates?

14 / 20

Cost volume Profit analysis (CVP) is a behavior of how many variables?

15 / 20

Variable costing is also known as:

16 / 20

Which of the following concept is used in absorption costing?

17 / 20

When prices are rising over time, which of the following inventory costing methods will
result in the lowest gross margin?

18 / 20

For manufacturing entities inventories are classified into ---------- categories?

19 / 20

When purchases are added to raw material opening Inventory, we get the value of:

20 / 20

The chief financial officer is also known as the:

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MGT411 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Risk sharing is the characteristic of which one of the following?

2 / 20

In electronic transfer the most common method is to send money through a system
maintained by Federal reserve called __________.

3 / 20

Stock exchange is an example of:

4 / 20

Nominal money demand raises with _________, as more income means more spending,
which requires more money.

5 / 20

Monetary base and quantity of money have_____________

6 / 20

Which of the following are goals of the Central Bank?

7 / 20

Which of the following are the primary uses of funds of Finance Company?

8 / 20

Which of the following provides a payment to the policyholder’s beneficiaries in the
event of the insured’s death at any time during the policy term?

9 / 20

There are _________ type/s of life insurance.

10 / 20

If a customer makes a withdrawal of $3 million, from where the bank will deduct this
withdrawal?

11 / 20

An important component of bank capital is ____________, an amount the bank set aside
to cover potential losses from defaulted loans.

12 / 20

Currency-to-deposit ratio is a factor that affects the quantity of money. This factor is
controlled by which of the following?

13 / 20

A bank can make new loans as long as it has:

14 / 20

Which one of the following is extended usually overnight to sound institutions on a very
short-term basis?

15 / 20

___________ is the strategy of reducing overall risk by making two investments with
opposing risks.

16 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a financial instrument?

17 / 20

A Financial Intermediary:

18 / 20

The one that you get from bank when you open your checking account is __________.

19 / 20

Which of the following is the final mode of payment?

20 / 20

Core principles of Money and Banking include each of the following Except?

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MGT501 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Under which of the following methods of jobs evaluation, jobs are arranged in an
order?

2 / 20

________ team allows groups to meet without concern for space or time and
enables organizations to link workers together.

3 / 20

The ability to think about abstract & complex situations is refered to as:

4 / 20

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a power tactic?

5 / 20

Which of the following dimension of trust is identified by exhibiting characteristics of
willingness to protect and save face for a person?

6 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a physical symptom of stress?

7 / 20

Chairperson, treasury and secretary are examples of which of the following types of
roles recognized by group?

8 / 20

The composition of managers’ experience, skills, abilities, and knowledge represents
which type of power?

9 / 20

ESOP stands for which of the following option?

10 / 20

Which of the following is not included in intrinsic rewards?

11 / 20

Which of the following component of attitude represents a person’s opinions,
knowledge, and information?

12 / 20

If the time between violation & the respective penalty implementation lengthens, the
impact of the disciplinary action will:

13 / 20

In the negotiation process, bargaining issues like wages, working hours, terms &
conditions of employment etc. all comes under:

14 / 20

A power base that depends on fear comes under which of the following category of
power?

15 / 20

As a CEO of a pharmaceutical firm, what could be your foremost preference while
offering benefits to employees?

16 / 20

Employee rewards like health & life insurance, pensions, time-off with pay, child care
facilities etc. are all referred to:

17 / 20

Which of the following is most popular technique for appraising employee
performance?

18 / 20

The re-arrangement of organizational structure & change in organizational culture is
accomplished during:

19 / 20

‘Actual situation – desired situation = problem discrepancy’, which of the following term
signifies this equation?

20 / 20

A __________ is a mature group with highly interdependent members who are highly
committed to a common goal.

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MGT502 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 19

What term is used for feelings that tend to be less intensive than emotions?

2 / 19

A strong culture can act as a substitute for which of the following?

3 / 19

The centerpiece of most diversity programs is:

4 / 19

Which type of selection technique is given the most weight?

5 / 19

Essential elements of TQM include all EXCEPT:

6 / 19

All of the following are types of conflict EXCEPT:

7 / 19

Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her
which of the following power?

8 / 19

Legitimate power is based on which of the following element?

9 / 19

Which of House’s leaders from path-goal theory are friendly and show concern for the
needs of followers?

10 / 19

There is fairly strong evidence that traits can predict _____ more accurately than
leadership effectiveness.

11 / 19

Demand on leader is ___________ in a team comprising of 2-7 members.

12 / 19

When the group energy is focused on the task at hand, the group has moved to the
_____________ stage.

13 / 19

Fahad, Zain and Usama work in different departments, but often take lunch together.
They are an example of what type of group?

14 / 19

Who sets MBO objectives?

15 / 19

In equity theory, individuals assess the ________________.

16 / 19

Asif is late for work each day by about ten minutes. How would Attribution Theory
describe this behavior?

17 / 19

When an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal
transaction, it is called:

18 / 19

The degree to which people in a country accept that power in institution and
organizations is distributed unequally is called:

19 / 19

Which one of the following is not considered as a part of organizational output?

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MGT503 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 21

Which of the following is called an input to a system?

2 / 21

At the very first stage of establishment, organizations are generally indulged in:

3 / 21

Which of the following is NOT a category of decision making style?

4 / 21

TCS represents what factor to the Pakistan Postal Service in its specific
environment?

5 / 21

When a manger made a decision and he is uncertain about the outcomes. His
decision is likely to be:

6 / 21

Which one of the following establishes goals, overall strategies and operating
policies of an organization?

7 / 21

________comes under the external environment of an organization.

8 / 21

Workforce of an organization is considered as _______ of an organization.

9 / 21

Organizational culture is similar to an individual’s:

10 / 21

Which of the following decision making technique is relatively simple and tends
to rely heavily on previous solutions?

11 / 21

The sales and marketing component of e-business is:

12 / 21

Monitoring organizational progress towards goal attainment is called:

13 / 21

Activities such as taking visitors to dinner and attending ribbon cutting
ceremonies come under which of the following management role?

14 / 21

to hold which of the following interpersonal role within the company?

15 / 21

Communication should be:

16 / 21

Management science and operations management are the branches of:

17 / 21

In the pyramid of levels of management, non-managerial staff is placed at/in:

18 / 21

Discrepancy between existing and a desired state of affairs is called:

19 / 21

Process, by which organizational people identify problems & assists in solving
them, is known as:

20 / 21

Lower-level managers typically confront which type of decision making?

21 / 21

Which one of the following individuals is most closely associated with scientific
management?

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MGT504 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

CAD stands for;

2 / 20

Which one of the following is strength of the functional structure in an
organization?

3 / 20

For which type of business, the production and consumption of the business
goods is a simultaneous process.

4 / 20

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an organization?

5 / 20

An organization where lower level staff is involved in the process of decision
making is called

6 / 20

The amount of verbal communication is low in which one of the following,

7 / 20

In which type departmental technology the task variety is high but analyzability is
low?

8 / 20

An integrator is located outside the departments and has the primary
responsibility of which one of the following,

9 / 20

A service firm has what sort of output.

10 / 20

Which of the following is not a structural dimension?

11 / 20

Use of dual authority in an organizational structure is an example of which type of
organization structure.

12 / 20

Which one of the following organizations should emphasize most on the
enhancement of skill level of its human resource?

13 / 20

Who proposed division of labor?

14 / 20

The two internal factors of SWOT analysis are

15 / 20

Which of the following strategy is to innovate, take risks, seek out new
opportunities, and grow?

16 / 20

What is the effectiveness criterion for Creditors?

17 / 20

Which one of the following is not considered as the part of classical management?

18 / 20

Which of the following is not a part of Porters model and strategies?

19 / 20

Which one of the following describes the whole characteristics of an organization
like size, goals, environment, technology etc?

20 / 20

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an organization?

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MGT510 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 19

Nonconformance is an expense of:

2 / 19

The Six Sigma is a new file separate from the total quality philosophy.

3 / 19

The no. of principles in Dr. W. Edwards Deming's quality principles is
____________.

4 / 19

Reworking _______ the cost of quality.

5 / 19

MBO stands for:

6 / 19

Do not permit overlong examples or irrelevant discussion. This refers to which of
the following discussion skills in meetings?

7 / 19

Which of the following can help to eliminate fear and encourage teamwork?

8 / 19

Which of the following is required for meeting and exceeding customer‟s need?

9 / 19

Which of the following is concerned about quality for achievement of TQM?

10 / 19

Which of the following refers to SIPOC (Supplier-Input-Process-Output-Customer)
diagram?

11 / 19

All of the following are the elements of a TQM system EXCEPT:

12 / 19

Which of the following models has the viewpoint that change and learning are
valued in themselves?

13 / 19

What was the primary concern of managers during 1980s?

14 / 19

Which of the following was developed by Motorola to improve its processes by
minimizing defects?

15 / 19

What is the relationship between Ishikawa and Deming?

16 / 19

Which of the following models value stability?

17 / 19

The majority of advertisers appeal the public on the basis of which of the following?

18 / 19

The products manufactured during 1800s were unique. How quality was ensured in
this era?

19 / 19

Taguchi suggested that loss in a process is increased with increase in which of the
following?

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MGT520 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Monotheistic religion means,

2 / 20

Which of the following is known as the bedrock of a culture?

3 / 20

Which of the following is forerunner of European Union?

4 / 20

In which year the ‘treaty of Rome’ was formally signed?

5 / 20

__________basically is availability and accessibility of a service to customers.

6 / 20

MFA stands for;

7 / 20

What does MNE stand for?

8 / 20

In terms of social structure, individualism is observed in which of the following country?

9 / 20

In 1996 the U.S. Congress passed a resolution against Cuba, what was the name of that
act?

10 / 20

What is the percentage of Hindu people in total world population?

11 / 20

When was the Hinduism originated?

12 / 20

Individualism is opposite to which one of the following?

13 / 20

It is a way that firms can unload excess production into foreign markets is called:

14 / 20

In which year Foreign Corrupt Practices Act was applied in United States of America?

15 / 20

GATS stand for;

16 / 20

In 1948, how many countries sign on GATT

17 / 20

What does the acronym PRISM stand for?

18 / 20

Which of the following terms describes removal of government restrictions concerning
the conduct of a business?

19 / 20

According to Forrester Research, the value of Web-based transactions hit $657 billion in
which year?

20 / 20

Which of the following country is famous for the export of coffee?

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MGT601 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Which one is Correct to measure how well the individual meets the requirement of a
position.

2 / 20

Which of the following is most important item for a business that can be extracted
from financial statements?

3 / 20

If exporting country remove subsidy from its products, then the price of products for
importing country will be:

4 / 20

Which of the following is the expressed form of WTO?

5 / 20

Ali now has the buying power to purchase the computer system he has wanted for the
last three months. Ali’s want is replaced

6 / 20

Which of the following ministry manage the particulars of copyrights?

7 / 20

---------- refers to the storage of information by an individual for use in problem
solving and decision making.

8 / 20

Which one is Not included in compensation plan suitable for small business

9 / 20

The wages structure must be such that the staff has the motivation to work for

10 / 20

Application blanks contain

11 / 20

Which one of the following is not included in small firm’s advantages

12 / 20

ICT play a vital role in ------------ enterprises

13 / 20

Republic of Korea the share of small units in total export is

14 / 20

Sixth Ministerial Conference held in

15 / 20

Fifth Ministerial held in Cancun from

16 / 20

A study on trade of real estate in Services commissioned by

17 / 20

A foreign undertaking is allowed to hire up to ------- of its total executive and specialist
from abroad .

18 / 20

Which one is Not include in the Pakistan five law / amendments under WTO standard

19 / 20

.NTC stands for National Tariff Commission

20 / 20

ADDs stand for

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MGT602 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

In the U.S. joint ventures were first formed for large-scale projects in which of the
following options?

2 / 20

Which of the following is a free method to create awareness of the venture?

3 / 20

Which of the following is the oldest development financing institution?

4 / 20

Which of the following number of years a mortgage loan may possibly cover?

5 / 20

When the business does not have assets to support a loan, the entrepreneur may go for
which one of the following options?

6 / 20

Which of the following is NOT the determinant of entrepreneur's ownership?

7 / 20

Which of the following statement provides projections of all operating expenses for each
month of the first year?

8 / 20

Which of the following shows the characteristic of the corporation with reference to
taxation system?

9 / 20

Which of the following shows the standard acceptable term of a Limited Liability
Company?

10 / 20

Which of the following is the most sensitive plan in the business plan?

11 / 20

Which statement of the following relates with the ultimate goal of Business?

12 / 20

Which of the following is a process of dividing the market into smaller homogeneous
groups?

13 / 20

Which of the following should be considered when the market for new venture is highly
concentrated?

14 / 20

Which of the following is necessary to initiate the market research?

15 / 20

Which of the following plan has names, addresses, and resumes of the directors and
officers of the corporation?

16 / 20

Bankers say that most businesses fail because of the _____ inability to plan properly.

17 / 20

Which of the following is a powerful marketing tool for expansion of business in new
market?

18 / 20

Which one the following is the best protection against product liability?

19 / 20

The concept of World Wide Web pages was developed in:

20 / 20

Which one of the following is important for international business to avoid trade
barriers?

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MGT603 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

All of the following are support activities of Porter’s supply chain model EXCEPT:

2 / 20

Which of the following is best identified as being an adaptation of the divisional
structure?

3 / 20

SPACE matrix has four quadrants. All of the following are SPACE Matrix quadrants

4 / 20

Distribution includes which of the following?

5 / 20

Which strategy should be implemented when a division is responsible for an Organization’s overall poor
performance?

6 / 20

Which one of the following is the organizational structure that most of the medium-size organizations follow?

7 / 20

What type of strategies would you recommend when a firm s SPACE Matrix directional vector has the coordinates
(-2, +3)?

8 / 20

Which of the following stages of strategy formulation framework involves development of Internal External
Matrix?

9 / 20

Which of the following stages of Strategy Formulation Framework involves development of Internal-Factor
Evaluation Matrix?

10 / 20

Which of the following stages in the strategy-formulation framework focuses on summarizing the basic information needed to formulate strategies?

11 / 20

The Web sites that sell products directly to the consumers are the examples of which type of strategy?

12 / 20

________________ become/s information only when it/they is/are evaluated, filtered,
condensed, analyzed and organized for a specific purpose, problem, individual, or time.

13 / 20

A planned activity aimed at discovery of new knowledge with the hope of developing new or improved products and services and translation of its findings into a plan or design of new or improved products and services is known as:

14 / 20

All of the following fall under the category of Process function of production management EXCEPT:

15 / 20

Allocation and reallocation of capital and resources to projects, products, assets, and divisions of an organization
is known as:

16 / 20

Which type of trend can be exemplified by the increase in average level of education in a society?

17 / 20

Which of the following business actions is NOT considered to be unethical?

18 / 20

A desired future state that the organization attempts to realize . Identify the term relevant to the given statement.

19 / 20

Strategist is an individual who is involved in the strategic management process, thus may be known as:

20 / 20

Strategic management integrates all of the following areas EXCEPT:

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MGT611 Final term important mcqs 2023

1 / 20

Which one of the following is NOT an example of self defeating behavior?

2 / 20

Which one of the following is the totality of an individual’s personality?

3 / 20

Bouncing back from setbacks and embarrassment is often referred as:

4 / 20

Which type of personality is commonly associated with stress?

5 / 20

A person is communicating about himself or herself in public, he/she is showing:

6 / 20

We know that the communication cycle completes only when the __________ step has been taken.

7 / 20

The experience of feeling competent to cope with the basic challenges in life and being worthy of
happiness is known as:

8 / 20

A manager who shows consistency between his or her words and actions develops a reputation for:

9 / 20

All of the following are barriers to effective communication EXCEPT:

10 / 20

The most recommended way of resolving conflict is _________ and problem-solving.

11 / 20

When working to achieve a win-win solution to a conflict, it is most effective to use:

12 / 20

Unwanted behaviors between males and females at workplaces defined as: